falapatorius:
Guy:
But this is how deep the Court's analysis should have gone. It should make it clear on what legal basis it is making those decisions, and clear enough for decision-makers not to run foul of the BoR.
I can agree the Court's written decision was decidedly terse. Having said that, I'm not sure the verdict in this particular case needed an in-depth analysis of the Law, and it's interpretation/application vis a vis the matter at hand. Interpretation of the Law is better left for a request for review.
The facts of this case (and citation of the relevant Laws), as laid out by the Prosecution, are sufficient to establish how the Law was broken by the defendant. The Court was tasked to weigh the facts and determine if the defendant had indeed violated his Oath of Office, and thereby committed the crime of Gross Misconduct. The lack of counter arguments by the Defense served the defendant poorly, in that no other facts were offered into evidence. Given those circumstances, a guilty verdict was appropriate imo. Consensus by the Court was achieved on that.
"I vehemently disagree."
For starters, it should be noted that it is generally recognised that it is the Court's responsibility to issue reasons for its decisions. Not only is it their duty, but failure to do so is usually accepted as appealable error. While of course the venture of an appeal is somewhat constricted by only having one Court, and yes we are playing a game, it is something that the Court should be mindful of.
In every criminal trial, the question of what the prosecution actually needs to prove is at the forefront. This is the case whether the verdict as to guilt is to be delivered by a jury (in which case it will be instructed extensively) or by a judge(s) (in which case, if it is a matter where there is no agreement between the sides, it is to be determined when delivering their verdict).
What we have here, of course, is unique because we don't have the volume of criminal cases that we have IRL. The judges can't just rely on appellate court precedents, or instruct the jury based on pre-prepared standard instructions, but this is really a matter for them to decide when the first case comes forward. You either start at first principles, or adopt authority that establishes principles for you.
So the criminal law here required Tomb to either "willfully or through negligence" violate his oath. While the oath is terribly worded, I think it should suffice for this case to decide that it covers violating any TNP law (including the BoR). An interesting question arises as to what the state of mind needs to exist in relation to. I think the violation itself (i.e. knowledge that the conduct violates the oath, or negligence as to whether it does so) is the likeliest construction. There can be an argument whether this relates to knowledge of the facts leading to the violation, but I think that's getting a bit too nitty-gritty.
So Tomb needed to either willfully or negligently violate his oath. Let it be noted that there was no discussion as to what is required to establish negligence, and if it has been established in the cases, the Court has not pointed it out. We therefore have two elements here, one with an associated mens rea:
1) The accused must have performed an act [a physical element, of course, has to be intentional - you can't punish a muscle spasm]
2) The act must have violated the oath. The accused must have known, or was negligent as to, the fact that his conduct does so.
Of course, since we're assuming that by violating the BoR you are violating the oath, and therefore you can simply replace 'oath' with 'BoR'.
So then we reach the question canvassed in the exchange between Asta and I -- namely, whether Tomb's conduct actually violated the BoR. This is directly something that must be proven by the prosecution to convict. It is an element of the crime. What a violation of the BoR actually entails is something that is just as much intrinsically part of the criminal act as anything else. What the Court did is pretty much establish a two-step inquiry.
1) Did the person, in their governmental capacity, fail their duty to encourage the [exercise of?] the right for free speech
2) The failure was not justifiable.
This is pretty skint reasoning to find someone in violation. The back-and-forth between Asta and I probably totaled far more than that. You say it is terse. I agree. But not only is it terse, it is obscure. And so obscure so to make the law itself entirely obscure.
Is this a fair amount of work? Yes. But if you are going to deposit your judiciary with the power to ban people from the forum, I would expect a judicial manner of execution of its duties. I certainly would not want to be banned from my region based on a sloppy decision. While I recognise that a ban was never really a possible end-result here,